Quoted By:
1. Mexico
2. No. The closest thing we've got to that is the Texas Revolution, followed by the Mexican-American War. In the former, English-speaking American immigrants who'd settled in the then-Mexican territory of Texas decided to declare independence because they wanted to own slaves. A few years later, the Republic of Texas willfully became annexed by America as the state of Texas. Shortly after that, some Mexican Army generals decided to march over to South Texas to reclaim some territory back, but they just ended up getting fucked up pretty badly by American soldiers. America declared war on Mexico. American settlers in California independence, which only lasted for a month till they got admitted as a Union territory. Once they got through with expelling Mexican soldiers from present-day American territory, they went deep into present-day Mexican territory. The American Army even occupied Mexico City (the Mexican capital) for a few days, causing Mexican people to feel utterly humiliated. The war ended with the Treaty of Guadalupe-Hidalgo, through which Mexico gave up 1.37 million sq km (525 thousand sq mi.) of territory, or more than 55% of its land, most of which was sparsely inhabited.
3. No. The Texans had a 7:10 k-d ratio, and America had a 3.46:10 k-d ratio in their respective wars against Mexico. I'm not gonna cry about "MUH BEANS", because I believe those lands that got taken over by America are much better off under their control than they would be under Mexican control.
