>>17625269>She was a Moabitess, a woman of Moab. "Your people shall be my people..." Would this be meaningful if her people were already Naomi's people? I'm not entirely sure, but I'm tempted to say no.In the KJV if you see words in a passage in italics it means that a scribe ADDED those words.
https://kjbrc.org/the-use-of-italics-in-the-king-james-bible/From the Wycliffe Bible the first English Bible written in 1382, with its odd Medieval spellings and grammar, we read at Ruth 1:16:
"And sche answeride, Be thou not aduersarye to me, that Y forsake thee, and go awei; whidur euer thou schalt go, Y schal go, and where thou schalt dwelle, and Y schal dwelle togidere; thi puple is my puple, and thi God is my God;"
(Ruth 1:16 Wycliffe)
Then in Young's Literal Translation we may read likewise:
"And Ruth saith, 'Urge me not to leave thee -- to turn back from after thee; for whither thou goest I go, and where thou lodgest I lodge; thy people is my people, and thy God my God."
(Ruth 1:16 YLT)
In the TS2000 from the best greek translation to date from 2000 AD
"But Ruth said, “Do not urge me to leave you, or to go back from following after you. For wherever you go, I go; and wherever you stop over, I stop over. Your people is my people, and your Elohim is my Elohim."
(Ruth 1:16 TS2009)
The words “shall be”, but we can verify from the Latin original that the words do not exist in Latin either!
Like the Greek, all the Latin says is
“populus tuus populus meus et Deus tuus Deus meus”, which, without adding any verbs, is “my people your people and my God your God”
(Ruth 1:16 Latin Vulgate)
