>>492339655>it's an anachronism to pretend it means "jew" before late 1st century AD.Proving you wrong Part 3/?
1 Maccabees (2nd century BCE)
(A historical book written in Greek before the 1st century)
1 Maccabees 1:1:
>ἐν ταῖς ἡμέραις ἐκείναις ἐξῆλθαν ἐξ ((( Ἰσραὴλ ))) υἱοὶ ἄνομοι καὶ ἔπεισαν πολλοὺς λέγοντες· πορευθῶμεν καὶ διαθώμεθα διαθήκην μετὰ τῶν ἐθνῶν τῶν κύκλῳ ἡμῶν, ὅτι ἀφ’ οὗ ἀπεχωρίσθημεν ἀπ’ αὐτῶν, εὕρομεν κακὰ πολλά.Original Greek:
>ἐν ταῖς ἡμέραις ἐκείναις ἐξῆλθαν ἐξ Ἰσραὴλ υἱοὶ ἄνομοι (en tais hēmerais ekeinais exēlthen ex Israēl huioi anomoi)
Literal Translation:
>"In those days came forth from Israel lawless sons."Describing the Maccabean revolt, and the emergence of "lawless men" from within the people of Israel. The use of Ἰσραὴλ clearly refers to the Jewish people as a whole. The translation of Ἰσραὴλ as "Israel" is straightforward. It's the standard Greek form of the Hebrew name "Israel."
1 Maccabees 1:11-15 :
>In those days lawless men came forth from Israel and persuaded many, saying, 'Let us go and make a covenant with the Gentiles round about us, for since we separated from them many evils have come upon us.' The men from Israel -- with Gentiles?
>And the proposal pleased them, and some of the people eagerly went to the king, who authorized them to observe the ordinances of the Gentiles. So they built a gymnasium in Jerusalem, according to Gentile customs, and removed their marks of circumcision and abandoned the holy covenant. Oh no, they stopped doing circumcision LIKE IN JERUSALEM to be with the Gentiles?
Not circumcizing like other Israelite jews?
