>>11069504The difference is the ability to force an action on the part of an entire population through the threat of death.
In this way you can se how the soviets did not have COMPLETE controll of the kulacks (with the exception of those they rounded up into camps)
As well as in the case rhodesia
The germans on the other hand DID have the ability to force action out of the jews in the camps and did so through the entire war.
They did not however have controll of the jewish population outside the camps as they could not compell said populace to action.
and if holococaust surivvors only came from this latter group?
The argument would be moot.
However a good deal of "survivors" do come from the camps
Inherently meaning the germans DID have the ability to exterminate them and CHOSE not to.
