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In the new testament, every time you see the word "nations," it is actually referring to non jews - gentiles. This is very easy to look up. The main word in the source material, in Greek, is "ἔθνος". Here is a link for proof.
https://biblehub.com/greek/1484.htm
So when the New Testament says something like this in Revelations 2:
>26 To the one who is victorious and does my will to the end, I will give authority over the nations— 27 that one ‘will rule them with an iron scepter and will dash them to pieces like pottery’[b:lit]—just as I have received authority from my Father.
That word "nations" is descended from "ἐθνῶν," which just means the plural of "non-jew." That changes the meaning of the verse substantially.
https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Revelation%202&version=NIV
This word is also very close to outright slur used by jews, "goyim".
Can anyone prove me wrong here? I really do not want to be right about this.
https://biblehub.com/greek/1484.htm
So when the New Testament says something like this in Revelations 2:
>26 To the one who is victorious and does my will to the end, I will give authority over the nations— 27 that one ‘will rule them with an iron scepter and will dash them to pieces like pottery’[b:lit]—just as I have received authority from my Father.
That word "nations" is descended from "ἐθνῶν," which just means the plural of "non-jew." That changes the meaning of the verse substantially.
https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Revelation%202&version=NIV
This word is also very close to outright slur used by jews, "goyim".
Can anyone prove me wrong here? I really do not want to be right about this.
