>>9164018for
42 > 42
because
1 / 12 = 42
but also
1 * ( 3 + 3 ) * 7 = 42
or
41 / 2 = 42
that's why
(φ * 0) + 42 = 42
is equal to
(π * 1337) / 100 = 42,00309378 ≈ 42
therefore is for
1337 / π * 10 / l0l = 42.13666513 ≈ 42
the result, but also
7 * 6 = 42
or even
910 * 610 = 4213 (like elucidated below)
and
((3 + 6 + 2 + 7 - 54 - 134 + 3 713 * 12) / 1 023) - 1.38807429 = 42
if viewed relatively even
42 + 42 = 42
the removal of some weeds later also resulted
420 / 0 = 42
or simply
42
and someone should've had claimed once, that
43 = 42
could be right as well.
>>the evidence:>we assume:∞ = endless
x / x = 1
x - x = 0
>part 1:∞ * ∞ = ∞ ( : ∞ )
∞ * ∞ / ∞ = ∞ / ∞ ( simplify )
∞ * 1 = 1
∞ = 1
>part 2:∞ + ∞ = ∞ ( - ∞ )
∞ + ∞ - ∞ = ∞ - ∞ ( simplify )
∞ + 0 = 0
∞ = 0
>part 3:∞ = 0 = 1 ( + 42 )
∞ + 42 = 42 = 43
