>>16301883>>16302027>>16302084Sorry, I was using the terminology of the user before me. "Vast majority" is not a math term so I don't care about those semantics.
Yes, men have more variation in standard deviation, which most commonly cite Jensen, A. R., & Reynolds, C. R. (1983). If you agree with that study, you should also know...
The standard deviation is literally less than 1 IQ point less for women. 13.55 for women and 14.54 for men. So a .99 difference. If the vast majority of women are average intelligence, so is the vast majority of men. At the very least almost the exact same number is of average intelligence (one standard deviation in the mean).
Take average intelligence to be one standard deviation above and below, sample means to be the same, and have the standard deviation associated with IQ be the usual 15. So the percentage of women within one standard deviation, for 13.55 we have a z-score of 15/13.55 = 1.107 and therefore 73.1% of women within one standard deviation of the usual IQ bell curve, and for men we have a z-score of 15/14.54 = 1.031 and 69.7% within one standard deviation of the usual IQ curve. So 4% of women are more average than men within one standard deviation.
Does that 73.1% vs 69.7%, 4% of women more average intelligence compared to men, make "women vast majority" but men not "vast majority" average intelligence?
It's either both or neither. The difference in standard deviation creates a rather negligible percentage more of average intelligence for women, but you don't read studies that are used for your shitposting, it's just "women more average hahaha" instead of how much more women are average.
Whatever wording you care to use at the end of the day, the numbers are is that the difference is 73.1% for women vs 69.7% average intelligence for men. They're basically the same.
