>>19758420Pre-KJV there was a clear distinction between Israelites (Christians) and Edomites (Jews and Muslims) and non-believers. When King James founded his church he wanted to conquer the Kingdom of Spain by utilizing the newly developed printing press combined with the relatively educated masses to:
1) Get Protestants to be welcome into his church (who were already opposed to the Catholic Church [who The Kingdom of Spain answers to]) with his on English Bible
2) Convert Catholics into his church by giving them a plain language Bible that the people literally could read (before the KJV one would have to go to a pastor to literally translate the Bible from non-modern text); disparities between what Catholic priests would say what the Bible says vs "what it actually says [KJV]" would cause discord between the masses and the Catholic church giving King James an edge in conversion
3) Convert Jews and Moors (Muslims) into his church by literally saying all peoples were Jews and could be saved through Christ; before the KJV Jews and Moors were persecuted by Christians
4) Convert non-Edomites into his church by saying they could be saved by Christ; this essentially made colonial slaves in colonies *actual* people.
This was a multi-faceted attack designed to steal The Kingdom of Spain and her colonies essentially giving King James the entire world by uniting it under his Church. As to your comment the reason Christianity didn't "save Africa" was before the KJV Africans weren't actually considered people with rights and when the KJV took effect in Africa it was around the time colonialism faded (if anything it served as a tool to remove colonialism) and caused the colonies to lose support due to "gentrification-like" fears of post-colonial governments and the fact most Africans rejected the KJV for local religions and customs leading to more fascist and patriarchal governments.
